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pinky12

Emergency Care Invoices

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Adult son (CT resident) received emergency medical care in South Carolina. He was incapacitated at the time of services (ambulance, hospital, lab, physician fees, to name a few) and did not call for the services of his own volition. Perhaps that fact is irrelevant. Bills were passed through insurance (he is still a dependent with coverage) and adjusted (or not) accordingly.  Son has no means of independent support and thus unable to pay balances.  Are parents responsible for residual balances?  Thank you.

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1 hour ago, pinky12 said:

Adult son (CT resident) received emergency medical care in South Carolina. He was incapacitated at the time of services (ambulance, hospital, lab, physician fees, to name a few) and did not call for the services of his own volition. Perhaps that fact is irrelevant.

 

It is.

 

1 hour ago, pinky12 said:

Bills were passed through insurance (he is still a dependent with coverage) and adjusted (or not) accordingly.  Son has no means of independent support and thus unable to pay balances.  Are parents responsible for residual balances? 

 

Depends.

 

Did parents sign anything at any of the facilities that says they are?

 

If not, then they aren't.

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Thankyou Adjuster Jack. Parents did not sign anything. Whole ordeal took place on emergency basis without our knowledge until after situation was medically stabilized.  We wonder what he is to do having been treated with no way of consenting ahead of time, and now with zero income.  Is he even responsible for the balances?

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1 hour ago, pinky12 said:

Adult son (CT resident) received emergency medical care in South Carolina. He was incapacitated at the time of services (ambulance, hospital, lab, physician fees, to name a few) and did not call for the services of his own volition. Perhaps that fact is irrelevant.

 

What's relevant is what exactly "incapacitated" means and why emergency medical services were needed.

 

 

1 hour ago, pinky12 said:

Are parents responsible for residual balances?

 

Based on the facts given, no.

 

 

15 minutes ago, pinky12 said:

We wonder what he is to do having been treated with no way of consenting ahead of time, and now with zero income.  Is he even responsible for the balances?

 

If he was in need of emergency medical services, why would it make any difference that he couldn't consent ahead of time?  Imagine a major car accident in which one of the drivers is severely injured -- perhaps unconscious and bleeding out.  Do you think emergency personnel should just stand there and do nothing and let the driver die because they can't get the driver's consent ahead of time?  He is liable for the reasonable cost of emergency medical services that were reasonably necessary under the circumstances (or at least the portion thereof not paid by insurance).

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