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  1. Yes, It appears so. Thank you for the advice on the department of labor.
  2. Hi, I am an independent contractor and have recently entered into a verbal agreement with a contracting company to perform product installation services for a major telecom during a work stoppage. The contract stipulates that work will be 6 days a week at 12 hours per day and that it was 30 days guaranteed work with an option to work longer as the strike continued. I also have these details in several emails. It was also understood by me and other independent contractors that if the strike ended early we were guaranteed a minimum of 30 days pay. As it turns out; the strike ended 17 work days later. At this point all involved expected to be paid for the remaining 13 days at our hourly rate x 12 hours x 13 days. They said it would be a couple weeks before payment. Nine days later the contracting company states in an email that their client considers the 30 days commitment as a 6 day work week; so we lose 4 days of 30 day commitment. Then in the same email they state that the client is only going to pay 8 hours per day for the remaining unworked days. To me the agreement implies 30 days of work at 12 hours per day. This arbitrary recalibration of the hours and days appears to me as a blatant breach of contract. It has been 45 days since the end of the strike and I still haven't been paid for the unworked hours. I want to send a demand letter to the parties involved for the unpaid hours @ 12 hours per day x 10 days and include a notice of breach of contract. Would be appropriate to format the letter in this fashion? Also, does it appear, to you the reader, that there is a breach of contract in this case? Regards.
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