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momslaw618

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  1. Needless to say the makings of a relationship they did not possess. She was apparently on an extended vacation, something, out here in California. She was too volatile and unpredictable to be under the same roof. She wanted to have the baby but didn't necessarily want to take baby back home full time (??)wanted to stay and have baby here is bottom line- She obviously didn't have a job or anywhere to go. His parents said they'd take her in, but he'd have to take care of her expenses, which is what he has been doing. So they have put a roof over her head, but he has financially supported her throughout the pregnancy. Thanks everyone for the information and links
  2. Thank you for the information. I believe he had signed something in the hospital regarding acknowledgment of paternity when he signed the birth certificate or something to that effect- anyway,what the stumbling block has been here is , is there a special or additional form to submit for mental health evaluation or if there is not, where within the documents would such a declaration be made? ElleMD, I have asked him the same question a million times over!
  3. Unmarried, uninvolved romantically, had baby approximately 3 weeks ago. Mother of child is clinically diagnosed with manic depressive/bipolar disorder and even prior to becoming pregnant has refused to take her medication or participate in treatment. Father of child and his family has been her sole source of housing and basic needs support throughout pregnancy and currently. She resides with his parents(he does not live there). During the pregnancy she expressed the desire to give birth and return to new York -leaving baby behind in California. She is prone to violent disruptive outbursts where she stands up and starts screaming that the person she is with is hurting her begging for the police to come. She has had 2 people arrested this way. She never drops charges or comes clean- there just isn't sufficient evidence, no marks or bruising, to pursue a case. With baby in her arms, she will charge at the father of child trying to hit him, throwing things at him. Friday finally put some real fear into the father of child when she put baby in the car seat and she took off flooring it sending car jerking forward, the braking just as fast, whipping the car into a spin- all this with baby in the car! No regard for the baby's safety. Her behavior is aggressive constantly baiting wanting to pick that fight. She verbally assaults father instead of talking to him about what is really bothering her. Father is concerned with the level of hostility and how much it effects the baby and household in general. Father has asked her to take her meds but she refuses. Now she has begun talking about going back to New York but taking the baby. That would have been fine on a shared custody plan and her back on meds and treatment. But again she refuses and come to find out no LDCP's for children under 3 anyway. It all comes down to needing some sort of custody order in place, obviously. Father does not begrudge mother the need to go back home to New York, but not with the baby, however, has no issue taking baby there to her for visitation every few months- whatever. But the bigger issue is her actual fitness as a parent. She exercises poor judgement , lacks impulse control, coping skills and creates an overall atmosphere of unbearable tension. What are the steps that need to be taken to have mother officially evaluated by courts in order to have it on custody record and or have her deemed unfit?
  4. This situation left me beyond curious and I can't seem to locate an answer specific to my question, so I am hoping someone can enlighten me, since for some reason I find this circumstance - the balance of financial burden or responsibility- interesting (a fellow parent who is a plumber was sharing with me his confusion over some payroll deduction issues, however I didn't know what to say) Ok.. he works as a plumber bonded and insured under his employer's/company certs. He was given the freedom to hire on a 'helper' but at his cost, which was temporarily cash weekly, until owner evaluated and approved of his quality of work. However, the deal was that my friend was still responsible for paying his helper from his commissions and the bookkeeper, so everything would be tax-ably on the up and up would be cutting the helpers checks taking care of the withholding taxes, etc. Well, my friend noticed a large chunk of money from his check going towards some state agency to which the bookkeeper replied it was the insurance for his helper. The bookkeeper states that he is responsible for paying the W.C. insurance and taxes since the helper is not technically an employee. But wouldn't that make him a 1099? My friend works for the plumbing company- he isn't an owner or supervisor. He isn't an independent contractor either. I can understand him being responsible to pay a few bucks to someone when they are short handed, etc, but if the company is going to treat him like an employee of their employee, how does that legally work? (The procedure in State of California re Worker's Comp Coverage counts the Ins as a cost of doing business and cannot ask employees to pay any portion of that premium.) So, who is actually responsible for the WC ins and what would the handyman be classified as - legally? employee , sub? 1099? thanks!
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