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newmodo

Who actually.. "owns" a judegment?

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Ok.. so.. original landlord lost the house to back taxes, but my lease was still current.

 

Talk to first property management team, they seem shady as hell.  Keep giving me different rates for rent over various conversations.

We go to court, I agree in court to move out on X day.

 

The Owner of the house, fires this property team because of too many complaints, too slow, etc..  Hires a new group.

 

I chat with them, but at this point i already found a new place and have no interest in the old house.

 

My question is:  My agreement in court was with the FIRST property management team, but they were, of course, hired by the actual home owner.

 

So legally, in these situations, would the second property management team have to re-issue the original eviction notice?  Or would they be able to act on the ruling that the first management team received

(which basically was an agreement to move out on a certain day).

 

How do judgments like this transfer?  Who actually owns them?  Man the law seems confusing.

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No answer is possible without seeing the court papers.  If you are correct that you only reached an "agreement" and no order was entered, the court proceeding is irrelevant.

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If a judgement was entered by the court, then the judgment is owned by the plaintiff or whoever he/she assigns it to. Just because the owner has a new agent, is no reason to start the unlawful detainer proceeding over again, if there is no judgment.

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