Jump to content


Photo

...


  • Please log in to reply
4 replies to this topic

#1 exwivesclub

exwivesclub

    New Member

  • Members
  • 3 posts

Posted 08 January 2013 - 11:28 AM

.

#2 pg1067

pg1067

    Platinum Contributor

  • Members
  • PipPipPipPipPipPipPip
  • 44,382 posts

Posted 08 January 2013 - 12:44 PM

Is there a statute of limitations for something like this? What would be the time frame for me to take action on the fact that he failed to comply with a court order stated in the judgment.


I don't understand the question. You said that "all creditors got paid" as a result of the home equity loan that you agreed to apply for after your divorce. If that's correct -- i.e., assuming I'm not misunderstanding what you wrote -- how do you believe he has "failed to comply with [the] court order stated in the judgment"?

Note, by the way, that any applicable statute of limitations obviously is state-specific, but you didn't identify your state, so you should do so if you follow up here.

#3 FindLaw_Amir

FindLaw_Amir

    Platinum Contributor

  • Moderators
  • 62,345 posts

Posted 08 January 2013 - 01:27 PM

What state is this matter concerning?
FindLaw's Legal Heads-Up! newsletter can provide you with the legal resources you need to make informed decisions when law touches aspects of your everyday life.

#4 exwivesclub

exwivesclub

    New Member

  • Members
  • 3 posts

Posted 08 January 2013 - 02:59 PM

!

#5 pg1067

pg1067

    Platinum Contributor

  • Members
  • PipPipPipPipPipPipPip
  • 44,382 posts

Posted 09 January 2013 - 07:53 AM

That doesn't clarify anything, I'm afraid. You agreed to take out a post-divorce loan. That loan is not subject to the provisions of the divorce decree. So, I don't see that your follow up post changes any of the facts that I took from my reading of your original post. Am I missing something?




0 user(s) are reading this topic

0 members, 0 guests, 0 anonymous users