Posted 13 December 2012 - 01:15 PM
Posted 13 December 2012 - 02:06 PM
if you sign a lease and the owner sells the property are your leases voided?
"[A] lease" or "leases"? If the latter, why are there multiple leases? Generally, however, no.
who then is responsible for the last months rent and deposit?
I'm not sure I understand this question. Could you clarify?
Posted 13 December 2012 - 02:22 PM
A new owner/landlord would be responsible for coughing up a deposit at the end of your tenancy. And if the current/old landlord didn't transfer last month's rent and deposit to new landlord, that's typically not the tenant's problem because there's no reason for the buyer not to make sure they get that ... even if they want to argue they had no idea there was a tenant. A court would typically tell the new owner can go after the old owner for that money, but not make the tenant suffer for the new owner's lack of due diligence.
I'll echo PG's advisory "warning" with a twist: (Many) legal issues are complicated. Explanations and comments here might not fully identify or explain the ramifications of your particular problem. I do not give legal advice as such (and such is impermissible here at any rate). Comments are based on personal knowledge and experience and legal info gleaned over a quarter century, and every state has differing laws on and avenues to address most topics. If you need legal advice, you need to consult (and pay) a professional so that you may have someone to hold accountable. Acting on personal and informational advice from a stranger on the internet is a bad idea -- at least not without your own thorough due dilience/research and confirmation as it applies to your situation.
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