Posted 07 April 2012 - 06:57 AM
Your spouse is either blowing smoke, or he's dumb as a box of rocks. Under no circumstances can someone acquire an ownership interest in property simply by marrying its owner.
If you purchased the house yourself with your money before you got married, it is and will remain your separate property. Your spouse will acquire a marital interest in the equity of the house (that is, a share of its value) to the extent that marital funds are used to make the mortgage payments and pay for taxes, insurance and maintenance. On the assumption that marital funds are used for all of these, that means (simplistically speaking) that in the event of divorce he'd probably be entitled to half the increase in the sale value of the house between the time you married and the time you divorce. Since you've only been married two months, that share is essentially nil at this time, but the question is moot anyway since you don't mention anything about a divorce.
Absent an action for divorce or legal separation, the law has nothing to say about what you and your spouse do about your separare or marital property no matter how long you've been married. He is free to want to sell the house, or rent it out or whatever, and you are free to tell him to pound sand. Since the title is presumably in your name, he can't legally do anything without your consent and cooperation.
The law also has nothing to say about the living arrangements of married couples. Whether either or both of you live in the house (or not) is irrelevant with respect to ownership.